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http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 512 | 510 Solutions Manual to accompany Organic Chemistry
R O O R
OO RO
ONaOH HO OHOH O R
O+
liquid glycerol
water solublesodium salt
water soluble
Sodium hydroxide is dangerous to humans because it not only hydrolyses
esters but attacks proteins. It damages the skin and is particularly dangerous
in the eyes as it quickly destroys the tissues there. Strong bases are more dangerous to us than are strong acids, though they are bad enough. The sodium salts from fats as well as glycerol are used in soaps.
PROBLEM 7
Draw all the keto and enol forms of ascorbic acid (the reduced form of vitamin C).
Why is the one shown here the most stable?
O HOOH
H
OH HOOascorbic acid
reduced form
of vitamin CO HOOH
H
O OO oxidized form
of vitamin C
Purpose of the problem
Revision of enols and an assessment of stability by conjugation.
Suggested solution
There can be two keto forms with one carbonyl group and two keto (or
ester) forms with two carbonyl groups.
O HOOH
H
OH HOOO HOOH
H
O HOOO HOOH
H
OH OOO HOOH
H
OH OOH
Two forms have greater conjugation than the other two and the favoured
form preserves the ester rather than a ketone and so has extra conjugation. |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 513 | Solutions for Chapter 42 – Organic chemistry of life 511
O HOOH
H
OH HOOO HOOH
H
OH HOOO HOOH
H
OH HOOO HOOH
H
OH HOO
PROBLEM 8
The amino acid cyanoalanine is found in leguminous plants ( Lathyrus spp .) but not
in proteins. It is made in the plant from cysteine and cyanide by a two-step
process catalysed by pyridoxal phosphat e. Suggest a mechanism. We suggest you
use the shorthand form of pyridoxal phosphate shown here.
CO2HNH2
CO2HNH2
pyridoxalCN
N
HCHO
OH
MeOP
OOOH
NHCHO
CN SH
pyridoxal phosphate shorthand
Purpose of the problem
Exploration of a new reaction in pyridoxal chemistry using pyridoxal itself
rather than pyridoxamine.
Suggested solution
The reaction starts with the formation of the usual imine/enamine equilibrium but what looks like an S
N2 displacement of —SH by —CN turns
out to be an elimination followed by a conjugate addition. Any attempt at an S
N2 displacement would simply remove the proton from the SH group.
Notice that the pyridoxal is regenerated. |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 514 | 512 Solutions Manual to accompany Organic Chemistry
NCHO
NNCO2H
HSH
H HNNCO2H
HS
HNNCO2H
HNC
CO2HNH2
SH
NNCO2H
NC
HH
NNCO2H
NCH
Himine
hydrolysis
NCHO
H+CO2HNH2
NC
(S)-cyanoalanine
PROBLEM 9
Assign each of these natural products to a general class (such as amino acid
metabolite, terpene, polyketide) explaining what makes you choose that class.
Then assign them to a more specific part of the class (such as pyrrolidine alkaloid).
OH
H
grandisolN
polyzonimineN
HNH2HO
serotoninOHO OH
HO
scytaloneNHO
pelletierine
Purpose of the problem
Practice at the recognition needed to classify natural products.
Suggested solution
Grandisol and polyzonimine have ten carbon atoms each with branched
chains having methyl groups at the branchpoints. They are terpenes and specifically monoterpenes. You might also have said that polyzonimine is an
alkaloid as it has a basic nitrogen. Serotonin is an amino acid metabolite
derived from tryptophan. Scytalone has the characteristic unbranched chain and alternate oxygen atoms of a polyketide, an aromatic pentaketide in fact. Pelletierine is an alkaloid, specifically a piperidine alkaloid. They are also an insect
pheromone (grandisol), a defence
substance (polyzonimine), an
important human metabolite
(serotonin), a fungal metabolite
(scytalone), and a toxic compound
from hemlock (pelletierine). |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 515 | Solutions for Chapter 42 – Organic chemistry of life 513
PROBLEM 10
The piperidine alkaloid pelletierine, mentioned in problem 9, is made in nature
from the amino acid lysine by pyridoxal chemistry. Fill in the details from this
outline:
H2N CO2H
NH2 Hlysinepyridoxal
RNH2 is
pyridoxamineN
HNHR N
H
CoASO O
N
H
CO2HO
NHO
pelletierine
Purpose of the problem
A more thorough exploration of the biosynthesis of one group of alkaloids.
Suggested solution
The first stage produces the usual pyridoxal imine/enamine compound and
decarboxylation gives a compound that can cyclize and give the cyclic iminium salt by loss of pyridoxamine.
H2N CO2H
NH2 HRCHO
pyridoxalH2N CO2H
NH
R–CO2
NH2NR
H
EnzN
HNHR
H
EnzN
H+ RNH2
Now the enol of acetyl CoA adds to the iminium salt to complete the
skeleton of the piperidine alkaloids. Hydrolysis and decarboxylation gives
pelletierine. |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 516 | 514 Solutions Manual to accompany Organic Chemistry
N
H
HOO
SCoA
BE n zN
HO
O SCoANH O
O OHNH OHpelletierine
PROBLEM 11
Aromatic polyketides are typically biosynthesized from linear ketoacids with a
carboxylic acid terminus. Suggest what polyketide starting material might be the
precursor of orsellinic acid and how the cyclization might occur.
CO2H
OH HOCO2HO
n?polyketide
precursororsellinic
acid
Purpose of the problem
More detail on polyketide folding.
Suggested solution
Looking at this problem as if it were a chemical synthesis, we could
disconnect orsellinic acid by aldol style chemistry.
CO2H
OHMe
HOα,β-unsaturated
carbonyl compoundCO2H
OHMe
HOO
But how are we to go further? Those cis alkenes and alcohols are a
problem. This is easily resolved as the alkenes are enols and we need to replace them by the corresponding ketones.
keto-enol
tautomerism CO2H
OMe
OO
MeCO2HO O Ostraighten
chain
We discover a linear polyketide derived from an acetate starter and three
malonyl CoA units. The only C–C bond that needs to be made is the one See p. 1162 of the textbook. |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 517 | Solutions for Chapter 42 – Organic chemistry of life 515
that closes the six-membered ring. Enolization then gives aromatic orsellinic
acid.
PROBLEM 12
Chemists like to make model compounds to see whether their ideas about
mechanisms in nature can be reproduced in simple organic compounds. Nature’s
reducing agent is NADPH and, unlike NaBH 4, it reduces stereopecifically (p. 1150
of the textbook). A model for a proposed mechanism uses a much simpler
molecule with a close resemblance to N ADH. Acylation and treatment with Mg(II)
causes stereospecific reduction of the remote ketone. Suggest a mechanism for
this stereochemical control. How would you release the reduced product?
NOH
PhMe H
ClPh
O
NO
PhMe H
PhO
O
Mg2
NO
PhPhO
OHH
Purpose of the problem
An example of a model compound to support mechanistic suggestions.
Suggested solution
The ketone is too far away from the chiral centre for there to be any interaction across space. The idea was that the side chain would bend backwards so that the benzene ring would sit on top of the pyridine ring and
that this could happen with NADH too.
NO
PhMe H
PhO
OMg2
N
PhMeHOO
Ph O
Mg2
N
PhOPhO
OHH
= product
|
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 518 | 516 Solutions Manual to accompany Organic Chemistry
This is a difficult problem but examination of the proposed mechanism
should show you that binding to the magnesium holds the side chain over
the pyridine ring. Enzymatic reactions often use binding to metals to hold
substrates in position. Of course, in this example, the substrate is covalently
bound to the reagent but simple ester exchange with MeO– in MeOH
releases it.
PROBLEM 13
Both humulene, a flavouring substance in beer, and caryophylene, a component
of the flavour of cloves, are made in nature from farnesyl pyrophosphate. Suggest
detailed pathways. How do the enzymes control which product will be formed?
humuleneH
H
caryophylleneOPP
farnesyl pyrophosphate
Purpose of the problem
Some serious terpene biosynthesis for you to unravel.
Suggested solution
Judging from the number of carbon atoms (15) and the pattern of their methyl groups, these closely related compounds are clearly sequiterpenes. They can both be derived from the same intermediate by cyclization of farnesyl pyrophosphate without the need to isomerize an alkene. The eleven-membered ring in humulene can accommodate three E-alkenes.
OPPhumuleneH
Caryophyllene needs a second cyclization to give a four-membered ring—
the stereochemistry is already there in the way that the molecule folds—and a proton must be lost. The enzymes control the processes so that the starting material is held in the right shape and, more subtly, to make the ‘wrong’ |
http://lib.ysu.am/disciplines_bk/ea4b336028cd91ba7265865d8fde153c.pdf | 519 | Solutions for Chapter 42 – Organic chemistry of life 517
(more substituted) end of the alkene cyclize in the humulene synthesis. It
might do this by removing the proton as the cyclization happens.
H
H HH HH
caryophyllene
PROBLEM 14
This experiment aims to imitate the biosynthesis of terpenes. A mixture of
products results. Draw a mechanism for the reaction. To what extent is it
biomimetic, and what can the natural system do better?
OAc+
OAcLiClO4
AcO AcO
+AcO
+
Purpose of the problem
Reminder of the weaknesses inherent in, and the reassurance possible from, biomimetic experiments.
Suggested solution
The relatively weak leaving group (acetate) is lost from the allylic acetate
with Lewis acid catalysis to give a stable allyl cation. This couples with the
other (isopentenyl) acetate in a way very similar to the natural process. However, what happens to the resulting cation is not well controlled. Loss of each of the three marked protons gives a different product. In the enzymatic reaction, loss of the proton would probably be concerted with C–C bond formation as a basic group, such as an imidazole of histidine or a
carboxylate anion, would be in the right position to remove one of the
protons selectively.
OOLi
OAcOAcH
H H–Hproducts
These experiments still give us
confidence that the rather
remarkable reactions proposed for
the biosynthesis are feasible: M.
Julia et al. , J. Chem. Res. , 1978, 268,
269 |
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 1 | Chemistry Practice
Placement Exam
Choose the best possible answer for each question. This is not the placement exam, but it gives
you an idea of the kind of questions one can expect in the exam.
1. Expressed in µL, the volume 6.35 × 10−4 L is:
a. 63.5
b. 6.35
c. 635.
d. 0.635
e. 0.00635
2. Expressed in scientific notation, the number 1234567890 is:
a. 1.234567890 × 109
b. 1.234567890 × 108
c. 1.234567890 × 1010
d. 1.23456789 × 109
e. 1.23456789 × 108
3. Expressed in mm3, the volume 4.23 × 10−9 m3 is:
a. 4.23
b. 42.3
c. 423.
d. 0.423
e. 0.0423
4. If the density of a substance is 1.43 lb/ft3 , the mass of 4.35 in3 of the substance in grams is:
[1 ft = 12 in; 1 lb = 453.59 g]
a. 235.13
b. 12.43
c. 23.70
d. 1.63
e. 1.25
5. Simplified, the expression (8.9 × 105 ÷ 2.348 × 102) + 121 is:
a. 3911.46
b. 3900
c. 3910
d. 3911
e. 3911.5
6. Rounded to four significant figures, the number 0.009650901 becomes:
a. 0.009650
b. 0.00965
c. 0.0097
d. 0.009651
e. 0.0096509
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 2 | 7. Consider the following list of substances and classify each of them as an element (E), a
compound (C), a homogeneous mixture (HM), or a heterogeneous mixture (HTM): Apple juice,
Chocolate Sundae, Baking Soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate), Sulfur, Clean Air.
a. C, HM, C, E, HTM
b. HM, HM, C, E, HTM
c. HM, HTM, C, E, HM
d. HM, HTM, C, E, HTM
e. C, HTM, C, E, HM
8. Classify the following three processes as physical or chemical changes: flammability of propane
gas, volatility of liquid propane, compression of gaseous propane into a liquid.
a. Physical, Chemical, Physical
b. Chemical, Physical, Chemical
c. Chemical, Chemical, Physical
d. Chemical, Physical, Physical
e. Physical, Physical, Chemical
9. An energy bill indicates that the customer used 955 kWh in November. How many joules did the
customer use? [1 kWh = 3.60 × 106 J]
a. 3.44 × 109
b. 3.44 × 10−9
c. 3.44 × 103
d. 3.44 × 10−3
e. 2.65 × 108
10. What is the temperature change in 500 mL of water when it absorbs 25 kJ of heat? [Specific heat
capacity of water = 4.18 J/g-°C; Density of water = 1.0 g/cc.]
a. 11°C
b. 12°C
c. 210°C
d. 4.8°C
e. 0.21°C
11. In iceboxes, ice is used to cool drinks. This is accomplished because ice melts, absorbing heat
from the drink. When ice melts, it absorbs 0.33 kJ per gram. How much ice is required to cool a
12.0- oz drink from 75°F to 35°F, if the heat capacity of the drink is 4.18 J/g-°C? (Assume that
heat transfer is 100% efficient; 1 oz = 28.35 g)
a. 1.97 g
b. 0.84 g
c. 671. g
d. 18. 7 kg
e. 19.2 g
12. Acetic acid or vinegar, CH 3COOH, is synthesized by the reaction of methanol and carbon
monoxide.
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic? If the density of the acid is 1.044 g/mL , what is the
quantity of heat involved in the synthesis of 1.00 L of acetic acid?
a. Endothermic, + 6.19 MJ
b. Exothermic, − 6.19 MJ
c. Endothermic, + 22.29 kJ
d. Exothermic, − 22.29 kJ
e. Endothermic, + 6.19 J 3 () () 3 () 3 ; =355.9 kJ/mol CHCOOH . l g l rxn CHOH CO CH COOH H + → Δ −
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 3 | 13. Gallium has two naturally occurring isotopes: Ga-69 with mass 68.9256 amu and a natural
abundance of 60.11% and Ga-71 with mass 70.9247 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of gallium
in amu.
a. 69.72
b. 70.13
c. 84.06
d. 55.79
e. 72.03
14. How many electrons are present in 33As3− ion?
a. 33
b. 30
c. 36
d. 39
e. 27
15. Rutherford’s experiments used a certain kind of particles on gold foil. What were they?
a. Beta-particles
b. Gamma-particles
c. Delta-particles
d. Alpha-particles
e. Eta-particles
16. The compound nickel(II) bromate has the formula:
a. Ni(BrO 2)2
b. Ni(BrO 3)2
c. NiBrO 2
d. NiBrO 3
e. Ni2BrO 3
17. The compound Pb(SO 4)2 is named:
a. Lead(II) sulfide
b. Lead(II) sulfate
c. Lead(IV) sulfate
d. Lead(IV) sulfite
e. Lead(II) sulfite
18. The compound (NH 4)2CrO 4 is named:
a. Ammonia chromate
b. Ammonia dichromate
c. Ammonium dichromate
d. Diammonium chromate
e. Ammonium chromate
19. The compound SF 6 is named:
a. Sulfur hexafluoride
b. Sulfur pentafluoride
c. Sulfur tetrafluoride
d. Sulfur fluoride
e. Sulfide pentafluorine
20. The compound dinitrogen trioxide has the formula:
a. NO 2
b. N2O6
c. N2O3
d. N3O2
e. N3O6
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 4 | 21. The compound phosphoric acid has the formula:
a. H2PO 4
b. H2PO 3
c. H3PO 3
d. H3PO 4
e. H3(PO 4)2
22. The compound H 2SO 3 has the name:
a. Hydrosulfuric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Sulfurous acid
d. Hydrosulfurous acid
e. Hydrogen sulfite acid
23. What is the sum of the coefficients of the following equation?
3 4( ) 3 2( ) 3 4 2( ) 3( ) ( ) ( ) .aq aq s aq Na PO Ba NO Ba PO NaNO + → +
a. 9
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
e. 16
24. The coefficients of the following equation, a, b, and c have the value:
4 3 2 2 aNH NO bN O cH O → +
a. 1, 2, 2
b. 1, 1, 2
c. 2, 1, 2
d. 2, 1, 1
e. 1, 1, 1
25. The sum of the coefficients of the following equation, a, b, c, and d have the value:
3( ) 2( ) ( ) 2 ( ) g g g g aNH bO cNO dH O + → +
a. 4, 5, 5, 6
b. 4, 5, 4, 6
c. 4, 4, 4, 6
d. 6, 5, 6, 9
e. 6, 5, 6, 8
26. The sum of the coefficients of the following reaction is:
3 2 2
( ) 2( ) 2 ( ) ( ) 3 ( ) 4 ( ) aq g l aq aq aq Fe SO H O Fe H O SO + + + −+ + → + +
a. 15
b. 13
c. 14
d. 12
e. 16
27. Acidified water (due to acid rain, primarily nitric acid) is neutralized by a process called liming ,
which is the addition of limestone (calcium carbonate) to water. The sum of the coefficients of
the balanced molecular equation of this reaction is:
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7
e. 8
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 5 | 28. Combustion of hexane (C6H14) in air (O2) results in the formation of carbon dioxide and water.
The sum of the coefficients of the balanced chemical equation depicting this reaction is:
a. 33
b. 45
c. 31
d. 35
e. 47
29. What are the products when aqueous solutions containing 2 moles of hydroiodic acid and 1 mole
of barium hydroxide are mixed with each other?
a. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI
b. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of solid BaI 2
c. 2 moles of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI 2
d. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI 2
e. 2 moles of water and 1 mole of solid BaI
30. What is the balanced net ionic equation when aqueous solutions of sodium phosphate and
copper(II) chloride are mixed?
a. 2 2
( ) 4 () 4() aq aq s Cu PO CuPO+ −+ →
b. 2
() 3 () 3() 2 2( )aq aq s Cu PO CuPO+ − + →
c. 2 3
( ) 4 ( ) 4 () 3 2 3( )2( )aq aq s Cu PO Cu PO+ −+ →
d. 2 3
() 4 () 2 4 3() 2 3 ( )aq aq s Cu PO CuPO+ − + →
e. 2 3
( ) 4 ( ) 3 4 2( ) 3 2 ( )aq aq s Cu PO Cu PO+ −+ →
31. What is the balanced net ionic equation when aqueous hydrobromic acid is mixed with
potassium hydrogen sulfite?
a. ( ) 3 ( ) 2 3( ) aq aq l H HSO H SO+ −+ →
b. ( ) 3 ( ) 2( ) 3( ) aq aq g g H HSO H SO+ −+ → +
c. ( ) 4 ( ) 2 ( ) 3( ) aq aq l g H HSO H O SO+ −+ → +
d. 3 ( ) 4 ( ) 2 ( ) 3( ) aq aq l g H O HSO H O SO+ −+ → +
e. 3 ( ) 3 ( ) 2 ( ) 2( ) 2aq aq l g H O HSO H O SO+ −+ → +
32. Consider the reaction:
( ) 2( ) ( ) 2 2 s l s K Br KBr + →
Which of the species is oxidized, and which is reduced? Answers are shown as (oxidized species,
reduced species).
a. K, Br 2
b. KBr, Br 2
c. K, KBr
d. KBr, K
e. Br2, K
33. Classify the following reaction:
Ca(s) + 2 HF(aq) → CaF 2(s) + H 2(g)
a. Precipitation
b. Acid-base
c. Redox
d. Decarbonation
e. Fulmination
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 6 | 34. A solution contains one or more of the following ions: Ag+ , Ca2+ , and Cu2+ . When sodium
chloride is added to the solution, no precipitate occurs. When sodium sulfate is added to the
solution, a white precipitate occurs. The precipitate is filtered off and sodium carbonate is added
to the remaining solution, producing a precipitate. Which ions were present in the original
solution?
a. Ag+ and Ca2+
b. Ca2+ and Cu2+
c. Ag+ and Cu2+
d. All three of them
e. None of them
35. How many moles of O are present in 5.00 g of tin(IV) oxide?
a. 0.066
b. 0.033
c. 0.074
d. 0.037
e. 0.017
36. How many g of Cl are present in 4.35 mol of Ca(ClO 2)2?
a. 154.
b. 1.76
c. 308.
d. 42.9
e. 2.27
37. A laboratory analysis of vanillin, the flavoring agent of vanilla, determined the following mass
percent composition of: 63.15% C, 5.30% H, and the rest O. If the molar mass of vanillin is
152.16 g/mol , the molecular formula for vanillin is:
a. C10H16O
b. C7H4O4
c. C5H12O5
d. C9H12O2
e. C8H8O3
38. How many atoms does 7.8 g of W contain?
a. 2.6 × 1023
b. 2.4 × 1025
c. 7.0 × 1020
d. 1.6 × 1022
e. 2.4 × 1023
39. A mothball, composed of naphthalene (C10H8), has a mass of 1.32 g. How many atoms of H does
it contain?
a. 4.96 × 1022
b. 6.20 × 1021
c. 1.61 × 1024
d. 5.85 × 1025
e. 6.20 × 1022
40. Iron is found in earth’s crust as the ore siderite (iron(II) carbonate). What is the mass in
kilograms of the amount of siderite that contains 1.0 × 103 kg of iron?
a. 960
b. 2100
c. 480
d. 6500
e. 1000
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 7 | The following five questions concern the synthesis of ammonia:
Ammonia is synthesized in a gas-phase process involving the reaction of nitrogen monoxide with
hydrogen gas. The reaction also releases water vapor as a by-product.
41. What is the sum of the coefficients of the balanced chemical equation representing the process?
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
e. 13
42. How many moles of ammonia can be synthesized from 6.0 mol of hydrogen gas?
a. 2.0
b. 2.4
c. 1.7
d. 15.0
e. 4.0
43. How many grams of ammonia can be synthesized from 15.0 g of nitrogen monoxide?
a. 26.4
b. 2.6
c. 136.4
d. 13.6
e. 8.5
44. If 45.8 g of nitrogen monoxide and 12.4 g of hydrogen are mixed together, which is the limiting
reactant, and what is the theoretical yield of ammonia in grams?
a. Hydrogen, 26.0
b. Nitrogen monoxide, 26.0
c. Hydrogen, 41.8
d. Nitrogen monoxide, 41.8
e. None of the above
45. If the actual yield of ammonia is 19.0 g, what is the percentage yield (in %)?
a. 160.8
b. 45.5
c. 136.8
d. 73.1
e. 63.4
Questions 46 and 47 are related to each other .
46. For mines, if the oxygen supply becomes limited or if the air becomes toxic, a worker can use an
emergency breathing apparatus to breathe while exiting the mine. The reaction involves
potassium superoxide (KO 2), and produces O 2 , and absorbs CO 2, a product of respiration.
2( ) 2( ) 2 3( ) 2( ) 4 2 2 3 s g s g KO CO K CO O + → +
What minimum amount (in grams ) of KO 2 is required for the apparatus to produce enough
oxygen to allow the user to breath for 15 minutes? Assume approximately 5.00 mg of oxygen per
second of normal breathing?
a. 0.22
b. 1.52
c. 2.03
d. 3.04
e. 13.3
47. How much potassium carbonate (in grams ) is accumulated in the filter at the end of 15 minutes?
a. 19.0 b. 3.09 c. 13.0 d. 4.12 e. 26.8
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 8 | 48. The Lewis structure of C 2H3N is:
a.
b.
c.
d. a and c e. a and b
49. Which of the following Lewis structures are acceptable?
a.
b.
c.
d. b and c only e. a, b, and c
50. What is the molecular geometry (shape) of N 2O?
a. Trigonal Planar
b. Bent
c. Linear
d. Tetrahedral
e. Trigonal Pyramidal
51. Which of the molecules are non-polar? I) H 2O II) NH 2OH III) CCl 4
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. All of them are polar
52. The shape of the molecule, H 3C−O−CH 3. , around each central atom is given by:
a. Tetrahedral, tetrahedral, tetrahedral
b. Bent, tetrahedral, bent
c. Trigonal Planar, bent, Trigonal planar
d. Tetrahedral, bent, tetrahedral
e. Bent, bent, bent
53. The Lewis structure of NaHCO 3 is given by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 9 | 54. Aluminum metal reacts with oxygen gas to form aluminum oxide. How many moles of
aluminum oxide can be produced from 5.00 mol O2?
a. 10.0
b. 7.50
c. 3.33
d. 1.67
e. None of the above
55. The formula for aluminum oxide is:
a. AlO
b. AlO 2
c. Al2O
d. AlO 3
e. Al2O3
56. What is the symbol of the metal potassium?
a. P
b. Os
c. K
d. Pt
e. As
57. What is the formula of methane?
a. CO 3
b. CH 2
c. CH 3
d. CH 4
e. None of the above
58. Which of the following statements are inconsistent with Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. All carbon atoms are identical.
b. An oxygen atom combines with 1.5 hydrogen atoms to form a water molecule.
c. Two oxygen atoms combine with a carbon atom to form a carbon dioxide molecule.
d. Carbon and nitrogen have different sizes.
e. Helium can be split into two hydrogen atoms.
59. How many grams of N and O are present in 4.55 g of dinitrogen monoxide?
a. 1.65, 2.90
b. 1.52, 3.03
c. 3.03, 1.52
d. 2.90, 1.65
e. None of the above
60. What are the name and formula of the compound formed between indium and nitrate ion?
a. Indium nitrate, In(NO 3)
b. Indium(III) nitrate, In 3(NO 3)
c. Indium nitrate, In(NO 3)2
d. Indium(III) nitrate, In(NO 3)3
e. None of the above
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 10 | Periodic Table of the Elements
IA
Speed of light, c = 2.99792458 × 108 m/s
Planck’s Constant, h = 6.626069 × 10-34 J•s
Avogadro’s Number = 6.022142 × 1023 particles/molVIIIA
1
H
1.0079 IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA 2
He
4.002602
3
Li
6.941 4
Be
9.012182 5
B
10.81 6
C
12.011 7
N
14.0067 8
O
15.9994 9
F
18.998403 10
Ne
20.180
11
Na
22.9897693 12
Mg
24.305 IIIB IVB VB VIB VIIB ┌── VIIIB ──┐ IB IIB 13
Al
26.981539 14
Si
28.0855 15
P
30.973762 16
S
32.06 17
Cl
35.453 18
Ar
39.948
19
K
39.0983 20
Ca
40.08 21
Sc
44.95591 22
Ti
47.867 23
V
50.9415 24
Cr
51.996 25
Mn
54.93804 26
Fe
55.845 27
Co
58.93320 28
Ni
58.693 29
Cu
63.546 30
Zn
65.38 31
Ga
69.723 32
Ge
72.61 33
As
74.92160 34
Se
78.96 35
Br
79.904 36
Kr
83.798
37
Rb
85.4678 38
Sr
87.62 39
Y
88.90585 40
Zr
91.224 41
Nb
92.90638 42
Mo
95.96 43
Tc
(98) 44
Ru
101.07 45
Rh
102.90550 46
Pd
106.42 47
Ag
107.8682 48
Cd
112.41 49
In
114.818 50
Sn
118.71 51
Sb
121.760 52
Te
127.60 53
I
126.90447 54
Xe
131.29
55
Cs
132.905452 56
Ba
137.33 57
La*
138.9055 72
Hf
178.49 73
Ta
180.94788 74
W
183.84 75
Re
186.207 76
Os
190.23 77
Ir
192.217 78
Pt
195.08 79
Au
196.966567 80
Hg
200.59 81
Tl
204.3833 82
Pb
207.2 83
Bi
208.98040 84
Po
(209) 85
At
(210) 86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223) 88
Ra
(226) 89
Ac†
(227) 104
Rf
(265) 105
Db
(268) 106
Sg
(272) 107
Bh
(273) 108
Hs
(276) 109
Mt
(279) 110
Ds
(281) 111
Rg
(273) 112
Cn
(285) 113
(287) 114
(289) 115
(291) 116
(292) 118
(294)
* 58
Ce
140.116 59
Pr
140.90765 60
Nd
144.242 61
Pm
(145) 62
Sm
150.36 63
Eu
151.964 64
Gd
157.25 65
Tb
158.92535 66
Dy
162.500 67
Ho
164.93032 68
Er
167.259 69
Tm
168.93421 70
Yb
173.05 71
Lu
174.9668
† 90
Th
232.03806 91
Pa
231.03588 92
U
238.02891 93
Np
(237) 94
Pu
(244) 95
Am
(243) 96
Cm
(247) 97
Bk
(247) 98
Cf
(251) 99
Es
(252) 100
Fm
(257) 101
Md
(258) 102
No
(261 103
Lr
(264
2007-09
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 11 | Chemistry Practice
Placement Exam Answers
Choose the best possible answer for each question. This is not the placement exam, but it gives
you an idea of the kind of questions one can expect in the exam.
1. Expressed in µL, the volume 6.35 × 10−4 L is:
a. 63.5
b. 6.35
c. 635.
d. 0.635
e. 0.00635
2. Expressed in scientific notation, the number 1234567890 is:
a. 1.234567890 × 109
b. 1.234567890 × 108
c. 1.234567890 × 1010
d. 1.23456789 × 109
e. 1.23456789 × 108
3. Expressed in mm3, the volume 4.23 × 10−9 m3 is:
a. 4.23
b. 42.3
c. 423.
d. 0.423
e. 0.0423
4. If the density of a substance is 1.43 lb/ft3 , the mass of 4.35 in3 of the substance in grams is:
[1 ft = 12 in; 1 lb = 453.59 g]
a. 235.13
b. 12.43
c. 23.70
d. 1.63
e. 1.25
5. Simplified, the expression (8.9 × 105 ÷ 2.348 × 102) + 121 is:
a. 3911.46
b. 3900
c. 3910
d. 3911
e. 3911.5
6. Rounded to four significant figures, the number 0.009650901 becomes:
a. 0.009650
b. 0.00965
c. 0.0097
d. 0.009651
e. 0.0096509
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 12 | 7. Consider the following list of substances and classify each of them as an element (E), a
compound (C), a homogeneous mixture (HM), or a heterogeneous mixture (HTM): Apple juice,
Chocolate Sundae, Baking Soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate), Sulfur, Clean Air.
a. C, HM, C, E, HTM
b. HM, HM, C, E, HTM
c. HM, HTM, C, E, HM
d. HM, HTM, C, E, HTM
e. C, HTM, C, E, HM
8. Classify the following three processes as physical or chemical changes: flammability of propane
gas, volatility of liquid propane, compression of gaseous propane into a liquid.
a. Physical, Chemical, Physical
b. Chemical, Physical, Chemical
c. Chemical, Chemical, Physical
d. Chemical, Physical, Physical
e. Physical, Physical, Chemical
9. An energy bill indicates that the customer used 955 kWh in November. How many joules did the
customer use? [1 kWh = 3.60 × 106 J]
a. 3.44 × 109
b. 3.44 × 10−9
c. 3.44 × 103
d. 3.44 × 10−3
e. 2.65 × 108
10. What is the temperature change in 500 mL of water when it absorbs 25 kJ of heat? [Specific heat
capacity of water = 4.18 J/g-°C; Density of water = 1.0 g/cc.]
a. 11°C
b. 12°C
c. 210°C
d. 4.8°C
e. 0.21°C
11. In iceboxes, ice is used to cool drinks. This is accomplished because ice melts, absorbing heat
from the drink. When ice melts, it absorbs 0.330 kJ per gram. How much ice is required to cool a
12.0- oz drink from 75.0°F to 35.0°F, if the heat capacity of the drink is 4.18 J/g-°C? (Assume
that heat transfer is 100% efficient; 1 oz = 28.35 g)
a. 1.97 g
b. 95.8 g
c. 671. g
d. 310. g
e. 19.2 g
12. Acetic acid or vinegar, CH 3COOH, is synthesized by the reaction of methanol and carbon
monoxide.
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic? If the density of the acid is 1.044 g/mL , what is the
quantity of heat involved in the synthesis of 1.00 L of acetic acid?
a. Endothermic, + 6.19 MJ
b. Exothermic, − 6.19 MJ
c. Endothermic, + 22.29 kJ
d. Exothermic, − 22.29 kJ
e. Endothermic, + 6.19 J 3 () () 3 () 3 ; = 355.9 kJ/mol CHCOOH . l g l rxn CHOH CO CH COOH H + → Δ −
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 13 | 13. Gallium has two naturally occurring isotopes: Ga-69 with mass 68.9256 amu and a natural
abundance of 60.11% and Ga-71 with mass 70.9247 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of gallium
in amu.
a. 69.72
b. 70.13
c. 84.06
d. 55.79
e. 72.03
14. How many electrons are present in 33As3− ion?
a. 33
b. 30
c. 36
d. 39
e. 27
15. Rutherford’s experiments used a certain kind of particles on gold foil. What were they?
a. Beta-particles
b. Gamma-particles
c. Delta-particles
d. Alpha-particles
e. Eta-particles
16. The compound nickel(II) bromate has the formula:
a. Ni(BrO 2)2
b. Ni(BrO 3)2
c. NiBrO 2
d. NiBrO 3
e. Ni2BrO 3
17. The compound Pb(SO 4)2 is named:
a. Lead(II) sulfide
b. Lead(II) sulfate
c. Lead(IV) sulfate
d. Lead(IV) sulfite
e. Lead(II) sulfite
18. The compound (NH 4)2CrO 4 is named:
a. Ammonia chromate
b. Ammonia dichromate
c. Ammonium dichromate
d. Diammonium chromate
e. Ammonium chromate
19. The compound SF 6 is named:
a. Sulfur hexafluoride
b. Sulfur pentafluoride
c. Sulfur tetrafluoride
d. Sulfur fluoride
e. Sulfide pentafluorine
20. The compound dinitrogen trioxide has the formula:
a. NO 2
b. N2O6
c. N2O3
d. N3O2
e. N3O6
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 14 | 21. The compound phosphoric acid has the formula:
a. H2PO 4
b. H2PO 3
c. H3PO 3
d. H3PO 4
e. H3(PO 4)2
22. The compound H 2SO 3 has the name:
a. Hydrosulfuric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Sulfurous acid
d. Hydrosulfurous acid
e. Hydrogen sulfite acid
23. What is the sum of the coefficients of the following equation?
3 4( ) 3 2( ) 3 4 2( ) 3( ) ( ) ( ) .aq aq s aq Na PO Ba NO Ba PO NaNO + → +
a. 9
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
e. 16
24. The coefficients of the following equation, a, b, and c have the value:
4 3 2 2 aNH NO bN O cH O → +
a. 1, 2, 2
b. 1, 1, 2
c. 2, 1, 2
d. 2, 1, 1
e. 1, 1, 1
25. The sum of the coefficients of the following equation, a, b, c, and d have the value:
3( ) 2( ) ( ) 2 ( ) g g g g aNH bO cNO dH O + → +
a. 4, 5, 5, 6
b. 4, 5, 4, 6
c. 4, 4, 4, 6
d. 6, 5, 6, 9
e. 6, 5, 6, 8
26. The sum of the coefficients of the following reaction is:
3 2 2
( ) 2( ) 2 ( ) ( ) 3 ( ) 4 ( ) aq g l aq aq aq Fe SO H O Fe H O SO + + + −+ + → + +
a. 15
b. 13
c. 14
d. 12
e. 16
27. Acidified water (due to acid rain, primarily nitric acid) is neutralized by a process called liming ,
which is the addition of limestone (calcium carbonate) to water. The sum of the coefficients of
the balanced molecular equation of this reaction is:
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7
e. 8
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 15 | 28. Combustion of hexane (C6H14) in air (O2) results in the formation of carbon dioxide and water.
The sum of the coefficients of the balanced chemical equation depicting this reaction is:
a. 33
b. 45
c. 31
d. 35
e. 47
29. What are the products when aqueous solutions containing 2 moles of hydroiodic acid and 1 mole
of barium hydroxide are mixed with each other?
a. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI
b. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of solid BaI 2
c. 2 moles of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI 2
d. 1 mole of water and 1 mole of aqueous BaI 2
e. 2 moles of water and 1 mole of solid BaI
30. What is the balanced net ionic equation when aqueous solutions of sodium phosphate and
copper(II) chloride are mixed?
a. 2 2
( ) 4 () 4() aq aq s Cu PO CuPO+ −+ →
b. 2
() 3 () 3() 2 2( )aq aq s Cu PO CuPO+ − + →
c. 2 3
( ) 4 ( ) 4 ( ) 3 2 3( )2( )aq aq s Cu PO Cu PO+ −+ →
d. 2 3
( ) 4 ( ) 2 4 3( ) 2 3 ( )aq aq s Cu PO Cu PO+ −+ →
e. 2 3
( ) 4 ( ) 3 4 2( ) 3 2 ( )aq aq s Cu PO Cu PO+ −+ → ☼
31. What is the balanced net ionic equation when aqueous hydrobromic acid is mixed with
potassium hydrogen sulfite?
a. ( ) 3 ( ) 2 3( ) aq aq l H HSO H SO+ −+ →
b. ( ) 3 ( ) 2( ) 3( ) aq aq g g H HSO H SO+ −+ → +
c. ( ) 4 ( ) 2 ( ) 3( ) aq aq l g H HSO H O SO+ −+ → +
d. 3 ( ) 4 ( ) 2 ( ) 3( ) aq aq l g H O HSO H O SO+ −+ → +
e. 3 ( ) 3 ( ) 2 ( ) 2( ) 2aq aq l g H O HSO H O SO+ −+ → + ☼
32. Consider the reaction:
( ) 2( ) ( ) 2 2 s l s K Br KBr + →
Which of the species is oxidized, and which is reduced? Answers are shown as (oxidized species,
reduced species).
a. K, Br 2
b. KBr, Br 2
c. K, KBr
d. KBr, K
e. Br2, K
33. Classify the following reaction:
Ca(s) + 2 HF(aq) → CaF 2(s) + H 2(g)
a. Precipitation
b. Acid-base
c. Redox
d. Decarbonation
e. Fulmination
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 16 | 34. A solution contains one or more of the following ions: Ag+ , Ca2+ , and Cu2+ . When sodium
chloride is added to the solution, no precipitate occurs. When sodium sulfate is added to the
solution, a white precipitate occurs. The precipitate is filtered off and sodium carbonate is added
to the remaining solution, producing a precipitate. Which ions were present in the original
solution?
a. Ag+ and Ca2+
b. Ca2+ and Cu2+
c. Ag+ and Cu2+
d. All three of them
e. None of them
35. How many moles of O are present in 5.00 g of tin(IV) oxide?
a. 0.066
b. 0.033
c. 0.074
d. 0.037
e. 0.017
36. How many g of Cl are present in 4.35 mol of Ca(ClO 2)2?
a. 154.
b. 1.76
c. 308.
d. 42.9
e. 2.27
37. A laboratory analysis of vanillin, the flavoring agent of vanilla, determined the following mass
percent composition of: 63.15% C, 5.30% H, and the rest O. If the molar mass of vanillin is
152.16 g/mol , the molecular formula for vanillin is:
a. C10H16O
b. C7H4O4
c. C5H12O5
d. C9H12O2
e. C8H8O3
38. How many atoms does 7.8 g of W contain?
a. 2.6 × 1023
b. 2.4 × 1025
c. 7.0 × 1020
d. 1.6 × 1022
e. 2.4 × 1023
39. A mothball, composed of naphthalene (C10H8), has a mass of 1.32 g. How many atoms of H does
it contain?
a. 4.96 × 1022
b. 6.20 × 1021
c. 1.61 × 1024
d. 5.85 × 1025
e. 6.20 × 1022
40. Iron is found in earth’s crust as the ore siderite (iron(II) carbonate). What is the mass in
kilograms of the amount of siderite that contains 1.0 × 103 kg of iron?
a. 960
b. 2100
c. 480
d. 6500
e. 1000
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 17 | The following five questions concern the synthesis of ammonia:
Ammonia is synthesized in a gas-phase process involving the reaction of nitrogen monoxide with
hydrogen gas. The reaction also releases water vapor as a by-product.
41. What is the sum of the coefficients of the balanced chemical equation representing the process?
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
e. 13
42. How many moles of ammonia can be synthesized from 6.0 mol of hydrogen gas?
a. 2.0
b. 2.4
c. 1.7
d. 15.0
e. 4.0
43. How many grams of ammonia can be synthesized from 15.0 g of nitrogen monoxide?
a. 26.4
b. 2.64
c. 136.4
d. 13.6
e. 8.51
44. If 45.8 g of nitrogen monoxide and 12.4 g of hydrogen are mixed together, which is the limiting
reactant, and what is the theoretical yield of ammonia in grams?
a. Hydrogen, 26.0
b. Nitrogen monoxide, 26.0
c. Hydrogen, 41.8
d. Nitrogen monoxide, 41.8
e. None of the above
45. If the actual yield of ammonia is 19.0 g, what is the percentage yield (in %)?
a. 160.8
b. 45.5
c. 136.8
d. 73.1
e. 63.4
Questions 46 and 47 are related to each other .
46. For mines, if the oxygen supply becomes limited or if the air becomes toxic, a worker can use an
emergency breathing apparatus to breathe while exiting the mine. The reaction involves
potassium superoxide (KO 2), and produces O 2 , and absorbs CO 2, a product of respiration.
2( ) 2( ) 2 3( ) 2( ) 4 2 2 3 s g s g KO CO K CO O + → +
What minimum amount (in grams ) of KO 2 is required for the apparatus to produce enough
oxygen to allow the user to breath for 15 minutes? Assume approximately 5.00 mg of oxygen per
second of normal breathing?
a. 0.22
b. 1.52
c. 2.03
d. 3.04
e. 13.3
47. How much potassium carbonate (in grams ) has accumulated at the end of 15 minutes?
a. 19.0 b. 3.09 c. 13.0 d. 4.12 e. 26.8
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 18 | 48. The Lewis structure of C 2H3N is:
a.
b.
c.
d. a and c e. a and b
49. Which of the following Lewis structures are acceptable?
a.
b.
c.
d. b and c only e. a, b, and c
50. What is the molecular geometry (shape) of N 2O?
a. Trigonal Planar
b. Bent
c. Linear
d. Tetrahedral
e. Trigonal Pyramidal
51. Which of the molecules are non-polar? I) H 2O II) NH 2OH III) CCl 4
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. All of them are polar
52. The shape of the molecule, H 3C−O−CH 3. , around each central atom is given by:
a. Tetrahedral, tetrahedral, tetrahedral
b. Bent, tetrahedral, bent
c. Trigonal Planar, bent, Trigonal planar
d. Tetrahedral, bent, tetrahedral
e. Bent, bent, bent
53. The Lewis structure of NaHCO 3 is given by:
a.
☼
b.
c.
d.
e.
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 19 | 54. Aluminum metal reacts with oxygen gas to form aluminum oxide. How many moles of
aluminum oxide can be produced from 5.00 mol O2?
a. 10.0
b. 7.50
c. 3.33
d. 1.67
e. None of the above
55. The formula for aluminum oxide is:
a. AlO
b. AlO 2
c. Al2O
d. AlO 3
e. Al2O3
56. What is the symbol of the metal potassium?
a. P
b. Os
c. K
d. Pt
e. As
57. What is the formula of methane?
a. CO 3
b. CH 2
c. CH 3
d. CH 4
e. None of the above
58. Which of the following statements are inconsistent with Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. All carbon atoms are identical.
b. An oxygen atom combines with 1.5 hydrogen atoms to form a water molecule.
c. Two oxygen atoms combine with a carbon atom to form a carbon dioxide molecule.
d. Carbon and nitrogen have different sizes.
e. Helium can be split into two hydrogen atoms.
59. How many grams of N and O are present in 4.55 g of dinitrogen monoxide?
a. 1.65, 2.90
b. 1.52, 3.03
c. 3.03, 1.52
d. 2.90, 1.65
e. None of the above
60. What are the name and formula of the compound formed between indium and nitrate ion?
a. Indium nitrate, In(NO 3)
b. Indium(III) nitrate, In 3(NO 3)
c. Indium nitrate, In(NO 3)2
d. Indium(III) nitrate, In(NO 3)3
e. None of the above
|
https://www.sfcollege.edu/_media/Assets/sf/placement/files/Chemistry%20Practice%20Placement%20Exam.pdf | 20 | Periodic Table of the Elements
IA
Speed of light, c = 2.99792458 × 108 m/s
Planck’s Constant, h = 6.626069 × 10-34 J•s
Avogadro’s Number = 6.022142 × 1023 particles/molVIIIA
1
H
1.0079 IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA 2
He
4.002602
3
Li
6.941 4
Be
9.012182 5
B
10.81 6
C
12.011 7
N
14.0067 8
O
15.9994 9
F
18.998403 10
Ne
20.180
11
Na
22.9897693 12
Mg
24.305 IIIB IVB VB VIB VIIB ┌── VIIIB ──┐ IB IIB 13
Al
26.981539 14
Si
28.0855 15
P
30.973762 16
S
32.06 17
Cl
35.453 18
Ar
39.948
19
K
39.0983 20
Ca
40.08 21
Sc
44.95591 22
Ti
47.867 23
V
50.9415 24
Cr
51.996 25
Mn
54.93804 26
Fe
55.845 27
Co
58.93320 28
Ni
58.693 29
Cu
63.546 30
Zn
65.38 31
Ga
69.723 32
Ge
72.61 33
As
74.92160 34
Se
78.96 35
Br
79.904 36
Kr
83.798
37
Rb
85.4678 38
Sr
87.62 39
Y
88.90585 40
Zr
91.224 41
Nb
92.90638 42
Mo
95.96 43
Tc
(98) 44
Ru
101.07 45
Rh
102.90550 46
Pd
106.42 47
Ag
107.8682 48
Cd
112.41 49
In
114.818 50
Sn
118.71 51
Sb
121.760 52
Te
127.60 53
I
126.90447 54
Xe
131.29
55
Cs
132.905452 56
Ba
137.33 57
La*
138.9055 72
Hf
178.49 73
Ta
180.94788 74
W
183.84 75
Re
186.207 76
Os
190.23 77
Ir
192.217 78
Pt
195.08 79
Au
196.966567 80
Hg
200.59 81
Tl
204.3833 82
Pb
207.2 83
Bi
208.98040 84
Po
(209) 85
At
(210) 86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223) 88
Ra
(226) 89
Ac†
(227) 104
Rf
(265) 105
Db
(268) 106
Sg
(272) 107
Bh
(273) 108
Hs
(276) 109
Mt
(279) 110
Ds
(281) 111
Rg
(273) 112
Cn
(285) 113
(287) 114
(289) 115
(291) 116
(292) 118
(294)
* 58
Ce
140.116 59
Pr
140.90765 60
Nd
144.242 61
Pm
(145) 62
Sm
150.36 63
Eu
151.964 64
Gd
157.25 65
Tb
158.92535 66
Dy
162.500 67
Ho
164.93032 68
Er
167.259 69
Tm
168.93421 70
Yb
173.05 71
Lu
174.9668
† 90
Th
232.03806 91
Pa
231.03588 92
U
238.02891 93
Np
(237) 94
Pu
(244) 95
Am
(243) 96
Cm
(247) 97
Bk
(247) 98
Cf
(251) 99
Es
(252) 100
Fm
(257) 101
Md
(258) 102
No
(261 103
Lr
(264
2007-09
|
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 1 |
1
234
567891011
1HHeBCNOFNe13Al14Si15P16S17Cl18ArHLiBeNaMgKCa19201237Rb38SrCs55Ba5657La58Ce59Pr60Nd61Pm62Sm63Eu64Gd65Tb66Dy67Ho68Er69Tm70Yb71Lu87Fr88Ra89Ac90Th91Pa92U93Np94Pu95Am
100Fm101Md102No103Lr96Cm97Bk98Cf99Es21Sc22Ti23V24Cr25Mn26Fe27Co28Ni29Cu30Zn31Ga32Ge33As34Se35Br36Kr39Y40Zr41Nb42Mo43Tc44Ru45Rh46Pd47Ag48Cd49In50Sn51Sb52Te53I54Xe72Hf73Ta74W75Re76Os77Ir78Pt79Au80Hg81Tl82Pb83Bi84Po85At86Rn104 Rf105 Db106 Sg107 Bh108 Hs109 MtPeriodic Table of the ElementsS.E. Van Bramer, 7/22
/991995 IUPAC masses and Approved Names from http://www.chem.qmw.ac.uk/iupac/AtWt/masses for 107-111 from C&EN, March 13, 1995, P 35112 from http://www.gsi.de/z112e.html114 from C&EN July 19, 1999116 and 118 from http://www.lbl.gov/Science-Articles/Archive/elements-116-118.html1.007946.94122.98977039.098385.4678132.90545(223)9.01218224.305040.07887.62137.327(226)44.95591088.90585138.9055(227)47.86791.224178.49(261)50.941592.90638180.9479(262)51.996195.94183.84(263)54.938049(98)186.20755.845101.07190.2358.933200102.90550192.21758.6934106.42195.07863.546107.8682196.9665565.39112.411200.5910.81126.98153869.723114.818204.383312.010728.085572.61118.710207.214.0067430.97376174.92160121.760208.9803815.999432.06678.96127.60(209)18.998403235.452779.904126.90447(210)4.00260220.179739.94883.80131.29(222)1.00794140.116232.0381140.90765231.03588144.24238.0289(145)(237)150.36(244)151.964(243)157.25(247)158.92534(247)162.50(251)164.93032(252)167.26(257)168.93421(258)173.04(259)174.967(262)110111(262)(265)(266)(269)(272)112(277)
114(289)(287)
116(289)
118(293)Please do not make any marks on this sheetPlease do not remove from the classroom |
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 2 | Multiple Choice: Select the best answer.
Round all molar masses from the Periodic Table to 2 decimal places.
1 Convert 0.06200 liters of hydrogen gas into milliliters of hydrogen gas.
A) 620 mL
B) 62 mL
C) 62.0 mL
D) 62.00 mL
E) 620. mL
2) 14.538 - 2.37 =
A) 12.17
B) 12.168(ignore sig figs and used the answer displayed on the calculator)
C) 12.2(rounded to the incorrect decimal place)
D) 16.908(added and did not round to the correct number of decimal places)
E) 16.10(added)
3) Which of subatomic particles can be found in the the nucleus of the atom?
A) p+ & n
B) p+
C) n
D) e-
E) e- & p+
4) For 73Ge determine the number of p+, e-, and n.
A) 32 p+, 32 e-, n 41
B) 32 p+, 32 e-, n 73
C) 73 p+, 73 e-, n 41
D) 41 p+, 41 e-, n 32
E) 73 p+, 32 e-, n 41
5) What is the electron configuration of potassium?
A) 1s22s22p3
B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p4
C) 1s22s22p63s23p3
D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
E) 1s22s22p63s1
6) Which would be the dot notation for arsenic
A) D)
As As
B) E)
As As
C)
As
|
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 3 | 7) Which of the following represents silicon
A) ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
B) ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
C) ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
D) ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
E) ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
8) Which pair of elements would form an ionic bond?
A) Na & F
B) C & O
C) H & Br
D) N & N
E) N & H
9) Which is the Lewis structure of magnesium fluoride
A) D)
B) E)
C)
10) Which is the Lewis structure of carbon monoxide
A) D)
B) E)
C)
⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮⥮↿↿↿↿↿⥮
⥮ |
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 4 | 11) What it is the geometry(shape) of phosphorus trichloride?
A) trigonal pyramidal
B) tetrahedral
C) bent
D) linear
E) trigonal planar
12) What bond angle(s) does hydrogen bromide?
A) 128˚
B) 180˚
C) 109.5˚
D) Less than 109.5˚
E) 120˚
13) How many grams of iron are in 0.274 moles of iron?
A) 15.3 g iron
B) 0.0144 g iron
C) 0.00491 g iron
D) 5.21 g iron
E) 0.0112 g iron
14) Convert 6.50 x 10-11 moles of arsenic into atoms of arsenic.
A) 8.68 x 10-13 atoms arsenic
B) 1.08 x 10-34 atoms arsenic
C) 3.91 x 1013 atoms arsenic
D) 4.87 x 10-9 atoms arsenic
E) 6.50 x 10-11 atoms arsenic
15) Determine the number of nitrate ions in 0.500 grams of cobalt(II) nitrate.
A) 0.00272 nitrate ions
B) 3.29 x 1021 nitrate ions
C) 1.65 x 1021 nitrate ions
D) 0.00546 nitrate ions
E) 2.49 x 1021 nitrate ions
16) Calculate the percent by mass of sulfur in sodium sulfate.
A) 22.58 %S
B) 26.87 %S
C) 16.19 %S
D) 19.31 %S
E) 24.22 %S
17) What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 13.86% nitrogen, 47.47% oxygen, and 38.67% potassium?
A) NO3K
B) N3OK
C) NOK3
D) NO5K4
E) NOK
|
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 5 | 18) What are the products formed when barium nitrate reacts with potassium sulfate?
A) BaK + SO4(NO3)2
B) BaSO4K2SO4
C) BaSO3 + K2NO3
D) BaS + 2KNO3
E) BaSO4 + 2KNO3
19) Predict the products of the combustion of propane(C3H8)
A) C + H
B) C + H2
C) CO2 + H2O
D) C + H2O
E) CO2 + H2
20) When the following reaction is balanced the coefficient in front of potassium chloride is
KClO3 → KCl + O2
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
21) How many grams of hydrogen are formed when 2.45 grams of hydrochloric acid reacts with strontium metal?
A) 0.0679 g hydrogen
B) 0.717 g hydrogen
C) 0.383 g hydrogen
D) 0.7172 g hydrogen
E) 0.71725 g hydrogen
22) In the following reaction, identify the acid
H2SO4 + Ba(OH)2 → BaSO4 + 2H2O
A) There is no acid in the reaction
B) H2O
C) H2SO4
D) Ba(OH)2
E) BaSO4
23) Referring to the reaction below, what is a proper mole ratio between the aqueous reactant and the gaseous product
Al(s) + HNO3(aq) → Al(NO3)3(aq) + H2(g)
(Balance the reaction to get the proper mole ratio)
A) 1 mole Al / 1 mole H2
B) 2 mole Al / 3 mole H2
C) 1 mole HNO3 / 1 mole H2
D) 3 mole HNO3 / 3 mole H2
E) 6 mole HNO3 / 3 mole H2
|
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 6 | 24) Determine the limiting reactant when 2.76 g potassium reacts with 2.65 g chlorine to form potassium chloride.
A) K
B) Cl2
C) KCl
D) Cl
E) K2
25) Convert 823 mmHg into atmospheres
A) 3.01 atm
B) 1,096 atm
C) 1,583 atm
D) 1.08 atm
E) 0.00813
26) A 1.33 L sample of carbon dioxide gas is at 22˚C and 755 mmHg. What is the temperature of the gas if the pressure becomes 817mmHg and allowed to expand to 1.85L?
A) 171˚C
B) 33˚C
C) 273˚C
D) 0.00225 ˚C
E) 0.0302 ˚
27) What is the pressure of a 0.348 mol gas sample at 19˚C and occupies 0.750 L?[note: Ideal gas constant is 0.0821 (L atm)/(mol K)]
A) 135 atm
B) 0.724 atm
C) 1.00 atm
D) 11.1 atm
E) 22.4 atm
28) Calculate the concentration (M) of a solution that has 5.67 g sodium carbonate dissolved enough water to make a 285 mL solution.
A) 19.9 M
B) 0.0199 M
C) 1.95 M
D) 0.188 M
E) 0.240 M
29) What is the proper name for the compound Co(SO4)2
A) cobalt sulfate
B) cobalt sulfur tetroxide
C) cobalt(IV) sulfate
D) copper sulfur tetroxide
E) copper(IV) sulfate
30) What is the molar mass of ammonium sulfide?
A) 66.15 g/mol
B) 50.12 g/mol
C) 68.17 g/mol
D) 49.11 g/mol
E) 6.022 x 1023 g/mol
|
https://sccollege.edu/students/studentservices/counseling/Shared%20Documents/Chem%20Placement%20Practice%20Exam%202023.pdf | 7 | This is practice. This does not cover ever single topic you should have learned in previous chemistry courses. If you do not feel confident in your knowledge and ability to solve problems in chemistry, the chemistry department strongly suggests that you enroll into Chem 100(Introductory Chemistry). Chem 100 is a single semester course that is offered Fall, Spring, Summer, and usually during Spring Intersession.
1) D 11) A 21) A
2) A 12) B 22) C
3) A 13) A 23) E
4) A 14) C 24) A
5) D 15) B 25) D
6) B 16) A 26) A
7) E 17) A 27) D
8) A 18) E 28) D
9) D 19) C 29) C
10) C 20) B 30) C
|
https://www.csn.edu/sites/default/files/documents/department-documents/department-of-physical-sciences/chemplacementtestpractice.pdf | 1 | THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS ARE PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR THE CSN CHEMISTRY PLACEMENT EXAM
The chemistry plac ement test is used to assess your pr eparation for Gener al Chemistry I, CHEM 121 at CSN. The t est is a stand ardiz ed
test that w ill exam ine your knowledg e of chem istry and basic mathema tical sk ills. You w ill be provided scra tch p aper, a Period ic Table
of the Elem ents and a nonprogram able scientific cal culator. The following sample questions are intended only as a guid e to show you the
relative level of difficulty an d example topics covered in the Chemistry Placement Exam. The actual exam will have a time limit of
50 minutes to answer 35 multiple choice questions. Click the following link to view a Periodic Table.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the single choice that best
answers the question.
1) How many total atoms are in the formula
Al2(CO3)3?
A) 12 B) 14 C) 9 D) 8
2) How many electrons are in Br -?
A) 4 B) 7 C) 36 D) 34
3) What are the coefficients for the following
reaction when it is properly balanced?
Na3PO4 + Ba(NO 3)2 → NaNO 3 + Ba3(PO4)2
A) 2, 3, 6, 1B )6, 1, 3, 2
C) 2, 3, 1, 6D )2, 1, 1, 3
4) Given that 4 NH 3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O,
when 4.50 mol of H 2O are formed, the amount
of NO formed is
A) 3.00 mol B) 6.75 mol
C) 1.50 mol D) 4.50 mol
5) What type of a reaction occurs when a sodium
hydroxide solution is mixed with an acetic
acid solution?
A) gas evolution
B) oxidation -reduction
C) acid -base neutralization
D) precipitation
6) Which of the following atoms has the smallest
radius?
A) Ne B) O
C) Li D) B
7) What is the molecular geometry if you have a
double bond, a single bond and 1 lone pair
around the central atom?
A) trigonal pyramidal
B) linear
C) tetrahedral
D)bent8) What volume of 12.0 M HCl is required to
make 75.0 mL of 3.50 M HCl?
A) 0.560 mL B) 257 mL
C) 560. mL D) 21.9 mL
9)(2.80x10 -3) (1.28 x 10 1)
(3.20 x 10 -4) = __________
A) 1.27 × 101B) 2.0 × 102
C) 1.2 × 106D) 1.12 × 102
10) Of the molecules below, only __________ is
polar.
A) CH 4 B) SbF 5
C) CO 2 D) AsH 3
11) Which one of the following is a metalloid?
A) S B) Ge C) C D) Pb
12) A certain atom has a charge of -2 and has 16
protons and 16 neutrons in the nucleus.
How many electrons does this atom possess?
A)
34 B) 14 C) 32 D) 18
13) How many moles of pyridine (C 5H5N) are
contained in 3.13 g of pyridine?
A) 0.00404 B) 25.3
C) 0.0396 D) 0.319
14) Solve the following equation for x:
4x – b = 2x + c
A) c – b – 6B )c + b
2
C)c + b
6D)c - b
2
1 |
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 1 | 1
BIO PLACEMENT TEST REVIEW QUESTIONS
Review 1: Answer Key on page 11 Select the correct answer.
1) Which of the following is FALSE about scientific theories? A) They have been thoroughly tested.
B) They are developed by inductive reasoning. C) They are used to support observations using deductive reasoning.
D) They can be either s upported or modified by new observations.
E) They are firmly es tablished and cannot be refuted.
2) Which of the following issues would be LEAST helped by application of the
scientific method? A) Developing more effective high school curricula B) Evaluating the relationship between violen ce in videogames and criminal
behavior in teens C) Determining the most effective safety products for automobiles D) Formulating public policy on euthanasia E) Comparing the effectiveness of two potential antibiotics
3) In controlled experiments: A) One variable is manipulated while others are held constant
B) All variables are dependent on each other
C) All variables are held constant
D) All variables are independent of each other
E) All critical vari ables are manipulated
4) Which of the following is/are characteristics of living organisms? A) Organized structure B) Growth and reproduction C) Maintenance of homeostasis D) A and B E) A, B and C 5) What do we call the maintenance of in ternal conditions of an organism within a
certain boundary range? A) Evolution B) Homeostasis C) Adaptation D) Metabolism E) Photosynthesis
|
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 2 | 2
6) Which is the correct sequenc e of increasing organization?
A) Mo lecule, cell, organelle, organ
B) Organelle, tissue, cell, organ
C) Atom, molecule, tissue, cell D) Organ, organism, tissue, cell E) Cell, tissue, organ, organ system
7) Which kingdom possesses unicellular animal-like species and unicellular plant-like species? A) Fungi B) Animalia C) Protist D) Plant E) Bacteria 8) The Bacteria and Eukarya dom ains are distinguished by:
A) All members of Bacteria are single-celled and all members of Eukarya
are multicellular. B) All Bacteria get nutrients via abs orption and all Eukarya by
photosynthesis. C) Only Eukarya have the ability to grow and reproduce. D) In Bacteria there is an absence of membranous organelles, such as a
nucleus. E) Only Eukarya have DNA 9) A basic difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell is that the
prokaryotic cell: A) Possesses membrane-bound organelles. B) Lacks a nucleus. C) Lacks DNA D) is considerably larger. E) is structurally more complex. 10) The atomic number of ca rbon is 6. Its nucleus must contain:
A) 6 neutrons and 6 protons
B) 3 protons and 3 neutrons C) 6 neutrons and 0 electrons D) 6 protons and 0 electrons E) 6 protons and 6 electrons
|
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 3 | 11) Whi c
A
B
C
D
E
12) A ch
A
B
C
D
E
13) Wh
a
A)
B
C
D
E
14) Whi
c
of t e
A
B
C
D
E
ch of thes e
A) Carbon
B) Hydroge n
C) Phospho
D) Calcium
E) All of the
hemical co m
A) A proton
B) A base
C) An acid
D) A hydrox
E) A hydrog
at happens
) The HCl m
B) The wat e
C) The con c
D) The pH o
E) None of t
ch propert y
emperatur e
A) High spe c
B) High hea
C) High hea
D) A and B
E) A, B, an d
atoms wo u
n
rus
above
mpound th a
ide ion
en ion
when hyd r
molecules s
er had less f
centration o
of the wate r
the above
y of water m
e for living o
cific heat
t of vapori z
t of fusion
d C
uld becom e
at releases
ochloric ac
separate in t
free H+
of OH- incre
r increases
molecules e
organisms ?
zation
e inert if it a
OH- into a s
id is added
to H+ and C
eases
enables wa t
accepted th
solution is c
d to water?
Cl-
ter to functi
ree electro n
called:
on as a m o
ns?
oderator
3 |
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 4 | 15) The
A
B
C
D
E
16)
A co
A)
B
C
D
E
17) Wh
a
int o
A
B
C
D
E
formation o
A) Gain or l o
B) Gain or l o
C) Sharing o
D) Sharing o
E) Gain or l o
ovalent bon
) Two non- p
B) A positiv e
C) One ato m
D) Two ato m
E) Two pola
at type of c h
their resp e
A) Condens
B) Hydrolys i
C) Oxidatio n
D) Ionizatio n
E) Dehydra tof ions inv o
oss of elec t
oss of prot o
of electron s
of protons
oss of neut r
d is forme d
polar mole c
ely charge d
m gives up e
ms share el
r molecule s
hemical re a
ective subu
ation
is
n
n
tion
olves the:
trons
ons
s
rons
d when:
cules asso c
d particle is
electrons t o
ectrons
s are attra c
action resul
nits?
ciate with e
attracted t o
o another a
cted to eac h
ts in the br e
ach other i
o a negativ
atom
h othe r
eakdown o
n a polar e n
vely charge d
f organic p onvironmen t
d particle
olymers
4 t |
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 5 | 5
18) As shown in this figure, the top triglyceride (a) has ____; the bottom
triglyceride has ____.
A) Double bonds and is saturated; no double bonds and is unsaturated
B) No double bonds and is satura ted; double bonds and is unsaturated
C) No double bonds and is unsat urated; double bonds and is saturated
D) Double bonds and is unsaturat ed; double bonds and is unsaturated
E) Double bonds and is unsaturat ed; no double bonds and is saturated
19) Which of the following r eactions requires the remova l of water to form a
covalent bond? A) Glycogen -> glucose subunits B) Peptide -> amino acids C) Cellulose -> glucose D) Glucose and galactose -> lactose E) Fat -> fatty acids and glycerol 20) Which of the following refers to the amino acid sequence of proteins?
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) None of the above 21) Which is not a featur e of a prokaryotic cell?
A) A plasma membrane
B) A nuclear membrane
C) Ribosomes
D) Enzymes E) DNA 22) After being formed by ribosomes on th e endoplasmic reticulum, what is the
next organelle to whic h a protein might be transported?
A) Mitochondria B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Golgi apparatus E) Chloroplast 23) Which type of cell does NOT produce cell walls?
A) Animal cells B) Plant cells C) Archaea D) Bacteria E) Prokaryotic cells
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 6 | 6
24) In an experiment, you meas ure the concentration of a polar molecule inside and
outside the cell and find t hat the concentration of this mole cule is gradually
increasing inside the cell. You al so measure the concentration of ATP inside
the cell and find that it is dropping. Which of t he following processes are you
likely to be observing?
A) Osmosis B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active Transport D) Simple diffusion E) Passive transport 25) The movement of water across a membrane from a solution of lower solute
concentration to a solution of higher solute concentration is best described as
A) Osmosis B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active Transport D) Simple diffusion E) Endocytosis 26) Mitochondria and chloroplasts share all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT that they: A) Are capable of ATP synthesis. B) Capt ure the energy of sunlight to meet metabolic demands.
C) Possess their own DNA D) Are surrounded by a double membrane E) Were originally independent organisms
27) Which of the following will be least likely to degrade a protein?
A) Temperature greater than 100 degrees centigrade
B) Strong acid C) Strong base D) Water E) Poisons 28) Which of the following en ergy-generating processes is the only one that occurs
in almost all living organisms?
A) Glycolysis B) Combustion C) Krebs Cycle D) Photosynthesis E) Chemiosmosis
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 7 | 7
29) At the end of glycolysis, the original carbons of the glucose molecule form:
A) Six mo lecules of carbon dioxide
B) Two molecules of NADH
C) Two molecules of pyruvate D) Two molecules of citric acid E) Two molecules of fructose 30) The oxygen we breathe in is used in A) Glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) Electron Transport System D) Preparatory Step E) Fermentation 31) If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine, what percentage of the sample contains cytosine? A) 13% B) 0% C) 37% D) 26% E) 74% 32) For the DNA sequence G-C-C-T-A-T in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence
found in the other polynucleotide chain must be:
A) C-G-G-A-T-A. B) G-C-C-A-T-A.
C) C-G-G-A-U-A. D) A-T-T-C-G-C. E) G-C-C-T-A-T. 33) Which of the following are expected to result in genetic variation among offspring? A) Mutations B) Crossing over C) Random assortment of parental chromosomes during meiosis D) A and B E) A, B, and C 34) For a mutation to affect the evolution of an animal spec ies, it must occur in
A) Somatic cells B) Prokaryotic cells C) Gametes D) None of the above E) All of the above
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 8 | 8
35) If a sperm cell has 6 chromosomes, it comes from an animal whose somatic
cells have ___ chromosomes.
A) 6 B) 10 C) 12 D) 18 E) 24 36) The haploid number of chromosomes for humans is *A) 23 B) 24 C) 26 D) 46 E) 48 37) Which represents the correct s equence of stages in the cell cycle?
A) G1, G2, S, M B) G1, G2, M, S C) M, S, G1, G2 D) G1, S, G2, M E) G1, M, G2, S 38) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the genetic in formation in the cells
of your body? A) Different kinds of body cells contain different genetic information.
B) Each type of body cell contains only the genetic information it needs to
be that type of cell.
C) The genetic information in almost all of your body cells is identical.
D) The genetic information in your body cells changes in a predictable
manner as you grow and develop. E) The genetic information is stored in the sequence of amino acids in proteins
39) What is the importance of crossing over in meiosis?
A) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells
B) It produces proteins necessary for cell division C) It causes the separation of homologous chromosomes D) It ensures that the daughter ce lls have different genetic material
E) It initiates meiosis 11 40) At which stage of meiosis is each chro mosome composed of a single chromatid?
A) Prophase 1 B) Prophase 11 C) Metaphase 1 D) Metaphase 11 E) Anaphase 11 |
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41) Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information as it is
needed for the c onstruction of a protein?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) Transfer RNA C) Messenger RNA D) Primary RNA E) Secondary RNA 42) Which the following occurs in the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? A) Transcription only B) Assembly of amino acids into protein only C) Replication of genetic material only D) Both transcription and r eplication of genetic material
E) Translation only 43) What are alleles? A) Genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color
B) Alternative forms of a gene for a single trai t, such as blue eyes or brown
eyes
C) The location of genes on the chromosome D) Recessive forms of the gene E) Dominant forms of the gene 44) An individual who is a carrier for a sex-linked trait, such as hemophilia:
A) Is always male B) Is homozygous for the condition
C) Shows the dominant phenotype
D) Cannot pass the gene to his or her daughters E) Is never a female 45) An individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a
recessive phenotype and 4 of thei r 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype.
What is the genotype of the parent with t he dominant phenotype?
A) Aa B) AA C) aa D) AAAa E) Aaaa 46) Which of the following is NOT true acco rding to Mendel’s law of segregation?
A) Each individual contains two factors for each trait
B) One factor must be domi nant and one must be recessive
C) Factors separate from each other during the formation of gametes
D) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor E) Fertilization restores t he two copies of each factor
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47) Which of the following can evolve?
A) Individuals B) Populations C) Genes D) DNA E) All of the above 48) Genetic variations in nat ural populations develop due to:
A) R andom mutations of the DNA
B) Changes in the diet C) Changes in the environment D) Environmental catastrophes E) Individual activities 49) An antibiotic is given repeatedly to treat a recurrent ear infe ction. It worked
initially but now is no longer e ffective. This likely indicates that the
Streptococcus bacterium:
A) Is very sensitive to the antibiotic. B) Is being treated with an antibiotic t hat has experienced a manufacturing
error, making it ineffective. C) Experienced natural selection that has allowed the resistant
Streptococcus bacteria to survive and multiply.
D) Are infectious only if they are sensitive to the antibiotic.
E) All of the above 50) Natural selection can act on a trait only if the trait is:
A) Heritable
B) Behavioral C) Favorable D) New E) Morphological
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KEY for Review 1
1. E
2. D 3. A 4. E
5. B
6. E 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. A
14. E
15. A 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. A
24. C
25. A 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C
30. C
31. C 32. A 33. E 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. C
39. D
40. E 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. B 48. A
49. C
50. A |
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Review 2: Answer Key on page 21
Select the correct answer.
1) A primary source of scientific results is ___
A) The news media B) Anecdotes from others C) Articles in peer- reviewed journals D) The internet E) All of the above 2) A guess in a scientific process is called __; a unifying explanation for a range of
observations is termed___? A) Theory: Hypothesis B) Theory: Experiment C) Hypothesis: Control D) Hypothesis: Theory E) Experiment: Theory 3) To test the effect of vitamin D on grow th, two groups of rats were raised under
identical conditions and fed the same diet. One of the groups received daily
injections of vitamin D. The other group received injections of saline, which did
not contain vitamin D. All the rats were weighed weekly for 2 months. In this
experiment, the control was the:
A) Group receiving vitamin D. B) Group receiving saline.
C) Average weight gain of the rats.
D) 2-month period of time. E) The diet the rats ate 4) Which of the following are both universal characteristics of life?
A) The ability to grow and the ability to repr oduce using DNA
B) The ability to reproduce using DNA and the ability to capture energy
from the sun C) The ability to move and the ability to sense the environment
D) The ability to grow and the ability to think E) The ability to reproduc e and the ability to sleep
5) Which of the following levels of organization is the most inclusive?
A) Organism B) Population C) Biosphere D) Community E) Ecosystem
|
https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 13 | 6) The "
A
B
C
D
E
7) The a
A)
B
C
D
E
8) The s
A)
B
C
D
E
9) A ch
e
A
B
C
D
E
first cells" s
A) Prokaryo
B) Animals.
C) Plants.
D) Fungi.
E) Protists.
atoms of a s
) Have the
B) Can for m
C) Can hav e
D) Can hav e
E) Always h
second o rbi
) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
emical com p
A) A proton
B) A base
C) an acid
D) A hydrox
E) A hydrog
shown at t h
tes.
single ele m
same num
m bonds onl y
e different n
e different n
ave an ov e
tal shell of
pound that
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en ion
he bottom o
ment
ber of elec t
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numbers of
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an atom c a
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e charge
an hold __ _
H+ into a so l
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ame eleme n
_ electrons
lution is cal
likely refer
nt
lled:
to:
13 |
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10) A neutral solution has
A) No H+ B) No OH- C) equal amounts of H+ and OH- D) No pH E) A pH of 0
11) What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules? A) Hydrogen bonds B) Ionic bonds C) Covalent bonds D) Hydrophobic interactions E) High heat of vaporization 12) What bond is (are) easily disrupted in aqueous (water) solutions? A) Covalent B) Polar covalent C) Ionic D) A and B are correct E) A, B, and C are correct 13) Large biological molecules are synthesized by removal of A) Carbon B) Covalent bonds C) Water D) Oxygen E) Peptides 14) Which of the following is NOT one of the four most common elements found in
living organisms? A) Hydrogen B) Carbon C) Oxygen
D) Sulfur
E) Nitrogen 15) If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule
gaining that electron, the electron donor is said to be
A) Reduced B) Oxidized C) Transformed D) Activated E) Inhibited
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16) A molecule of glucose has the molecular formula C 6H12O6. Therefore it has __
atoms.
A) 3 B) 12 C) 6 D) 24 E) None of the above 17) A lipid is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers?
A) Glucose or modified glucose molecules B) Amino Acids C) Nucleotides D) Alternating s ugar and phosphate groups
E) Fatty acids and glycerol
18) How are amino acids and proteins related? A) Proteins ar e made up of chains of amino acids
B) Amino acids are formed by joining together many proteins C) Proteins are a por tion of an amino acid
D) Proteins are chains of carbohydrates; amino acids ar e a type of lipid
E) Amino acids are similar to fatty acids 19) Fish sperm consists mostly of the male fish’s DNA. If tested chemically, there
would be rela tively high amounts of
A) Nitrogenous bases, sugar and phosphate groups
B) Phospholipids and steroids C) Triglycerides and ATP D) Proteins and stored fats E) Amino acids and unsaturated fats 20) Which of the followi ng statements about prokaryotes is incorrect?
A) Prokaryotes appeared on earth before eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes have circular pi eces of DNA within their nuclei
C) Prokaryotes contain cytoplasm D) Prokaryotes contain ribosomes
E) Some prokaryotes con photosynthesize
21) In plant cells, chloroplasts A) Serv e the same purpose as mitochondria do in animal cells
B) Are the site of conversion of light energy into chemical energy
C) Play an important role in the breakdown of plant toxins
D) Generate turgor pressure E) A and B are correct
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22) Cell walls
A) Have many small holes
B) Only occur in plant cells C) Dissolve when a plant dies D) Are made primarily from phospholipids E) All of the above 23) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher
concentration (of the molecule)to an area of lower concentration is best
described as A) Osmosis B) Passive transport C) Active transport D) Electron transport E) Receptor-mediated endocytosis 24) From your knowledge of the function of lysosomes, the pH of lysosomes is
likely to be A) Always changing D) 9 B) 5 E) 12 C) Neutral 25) In a phospholipid bilayer, the A) P hosphate groups are hydrophobic
B) Fatty acids tails are ionized C) Fatty acid tails are hydrophilic
D) Proteins are located only bet ween the two phospholipid bilayers
E) Phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of th e cell or toward
the cytoplasm
26) If enzymes were used during a reacti on, which of the following could be added
to a system to make the reaction occur faster?
A) Water
B) A decrease in temperature C) An small increase in heat energy D) End products E) All of the above 27) Which of the follo wing does NOT describe a chemical reaction?
A) The products ar e placed to the left of the arrow
B) The reactants are plac ed to the left of the arrow
C) The arrow represents the direct ion in which the reaction proceeds
D) Atoms must be balanced on both sides of the equation
E) All of the above are true
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28) Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol?
A) Glycolysis B) Electron Transport System C) Krebs Cycle D) Photosynthesis E) Chemiosmosis 29) During the Krebs cycle: A) The pr oducts of glycolysis are furt her broken down, generating
additional ATP and NADH molecules B) High-energy electron carriers pass t heir energy to molecules of sugar,
whic h store them as potential energy
C) Cellular respiration can contin ue even in the absence of oxygen
D) Pyruvate molecules are converted to lactate
E) NADH gets oxidized to NAD
+
30) The anaerobic breakdown of glucose is called A) Glycolysis B) Electron Transport System C) Krebs Cycle D) Photosynthesis E) Fermentation 31) What is the significance of the conv ersion of pyruvate to lactate during
fermentation? A) Pyruvate becomes available to enter the mitochondrial matrix
B) The citric acid/Krebs cycle is initiated C) NAD+ is regenerated for use in glycolysis D) ATP is produced E) The energy in pyruvate is used up 32) If a species contains 40% guanine in its DNA, what is the percentage of
adenine that it would contain?
A) 40% B) 60% C) 100% D) 20%
E) 10%
33) In an analysis of the nucleotide compos ition of DNA to see which bases are
equivalent in amoun t, which of the following is true?
A) A = C B) A = G and C = T
C) A + C = G + T
D) A + T = C + G E) G = T
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34) Which of the following statements about DNA replic ation is NOT correct?
A) The DNA molecule unwinds as the hydrogen bonds are broken
B) Replication occurs as each base is paired with one exactly like it
C) The process is known as semicons ervative replication because one old
strand is conserved in the new molecule
D) The enzyme that replicat es the DNA is DNA polymerase
E) The enzyme that links the Okaz aki fragments together is DNA ligase
35) A “mini-gene” has the base sequence TACCCGTGCACG. If the T at the
beginning of the sequence is deleted, what will be the consequence?
A) All of the co dons after that point will be changed
B) Only the amino ac id coded for in that codon will be changed
C) RNA polymerase will skip that codon, but all the others will be read
normally. D) RNA polymerase will correct the deletion, and a no rmal protein will be
produced E) The firs t nucleotide is always replaced anyway, so there will be no
change.
36) Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect?
A) A base substitution *B) A base deletion near the start of the coding sequence
C) The deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence
D) A base deletion near the end of the coding sequence E) A base deletion at the very end of the coding sequence
37) The cell formed through fertilization is called a/an
A) Zygote B) Gamete C) Sperm cell D) Ovum E) Egg cell 38) Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct? A) Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) Anaphase, metaphase, telophase, prophase D) Anaphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase E) Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase 39) Which does not occur in telophase? A) Cytokinesis is under way B) The nuclear membrane is being reconstructed C) The centromeres split apart D) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin E) The nucleolus reforms
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40) During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
A) Prophase 1 B) Metaphase 1 C) Anaphase 11 D) Prophase 11 E) Metaphase 11 41) Prior to protein synthesis, the DNA A) Attracts tRNAs with appropriate amino acids
B) Must first undergo replication C) Contains anticodons that must become codons
D) Serves as a template for the production of mRNA
E) Attaches to ribosomes for protein synthesis 42) Which of the classes of RNA molecule s carries the amino ac ids that are added
to the gr owing polypeptide chain?
A) Ribosomal RNA B) Transfer RNA C) Messenger RNA D) Primary RNA E) Secondary RNA 43) The process of converting the “message” of mRNA into a sequence of amino
acids is called: A) Translation B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Activation E) Duplication 44) Suppose one strand of a “mini-gene” has the base sequence TACCCGGATTCA.
The last codon in the mRNA sequence will be:
A) UGA B) AGT C) AGU D) TCA E) ACT 45) Traits controlled by sex-linked recessi ve genes are expressed more often in
males because: A) Males inherit these genes from their fathers
B) Males always carry two copies of these genes C) All male offspring of a female carrier get the gene
D) The male has only one copy of these genes E) Males get more copies of recessive genes than females do
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46) A human male has ___ chromoso mes with ___ sex chromosomes.
A) 46, XY
B) 48, XY C) 46, XX D) 48, XX E) 48, YY 47) Which statement is NOT true about x-linked characteristics?
A) More males than females are affected
B) If a female has the characte ristic, all her sons will show it
C) Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it
D) The characteristic often skips a generation, from a woman’s father
to her son E) Males can have two copies of the allele for the trai t, but females only
have one 48) Which organism is least likely to survive to reproduce?
A) A flower that produces a scent that attracts bees
B) A shrub t hat produces a toxin in its flower buds that repels deer
C) An animal with a mutation that causes skin color to be more noticeable
D) A dark-furred rodent that comes out only at night
E) a seahorse that mimics the weeds in which it lives
49) Evolution: A) Occurs too slowly to be observed B) Can occur in the wild but not in the laboratory
C) Is responsibility for the increas ed occurrence of antibiotic-resistant
bacteria
D) Is unrelated to mutations in DNA E) All of the above are correct 50) Which mutation provides a survival advantage? A) A flow er that attracts more bees
B) A tree that grows shorter than the surrounding trees C) A horse that lacks the ability to digest either grains or grass
D) A brightly colored fish that attracts predators E) A shrub that loses the ability to make seeds
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KEY for Review 2
1. C
2. D 3. B 4. A
5. C
6. A 7. A 8. E 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. C
14. D
15. B 16. D 17. E 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. B
24. B
25. E 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. A
30. E
31. C 32. E 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B
39. C
40. A 41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. E 48. C
49. C
50. A |
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Review 3: Answer Key on page 31
Select the correct answer.
1) Science is; A) A field of study that requires cert ain “laws of nature” to be taken on
faith B) Both a body of knowledge and an intellectual activity encompassing obser vation, description, experimentati on, and explanation of natural
phenomena C) A process that can be applied only within the scientific disciplines, such as
biology, chemistry, and physics D) The only way to understand the world E) A field of study that determi nes ethical standards for the human
Population
2) What best describes a c ontrol group in an experiment?
A) The condition that is being tested B) A sample taken through all exper imental steps exce pt the one being
tested C) A variable that changes throughout the experiment D) The dependent variable E) A condition that is different in every way from what is being tested
3) Which group is the most abundant in terms of numbers of individuals?
A) Animals
B) Fungi
C) Eukarya D) Plants E) Prokaryotes 4) Which of the following is a multicellular organism A) Heart B) Cardiovascular system C) Bacterium D) Forest ecosystem E) Cockroach 5) Which of the following are universal characteristics of life? A) The ability to grow and the ability to repr oduce using DNA
B) The ability to reproduce using DNA and the ability to capture energy
from the sun C) The ability to move and the ability to see and smell D) The ability to grow and the ability to photosynthesize E) The ability to organize and the ability to become dormant
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6) Metabolism refers to an organism’s ability to
A) Reproduce
B) Use energy C) Pass on genetic information D) Respond to the environment E) All of the above 7) A cell that lacks membranous organelles is a(n): A) Mem ber of the Plant kingdom
B) Animal cell C) Prokaryotic cell D) A protist E) Eukaryotic cell 8) An atom has 5 electrons in its outer orbi t. To complete its outer orbit it needs
__ electrons. A) 5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 8 9) Electrons A) Located closest to the nucleus have the most energy B) Along with neutrons, are located in the nucleus C) Are attracted to th e negatively charged nucleus
D) Are negatively charged E) Have an amu = 1 10) Water can absorb and store a large amount of heat while increasing only a few
degrees in temperature. Why?
A) The heat must first be used to break the hydr ogen bonds rather than
raise the temperature. B) The heat must first be used to break the ionic bonds rather than raise
the temperature C) The heat must first be used to br eak the covalent bonds rather than
raise the temperature
D) An increase in temperature causes an increase in the adhesion of water E) An increase in temperature causes an increase in the cohesion of water
11) Milk of magnesia, which ha d a pH of 10, is often used to treat a stomach upset.
Milk of magnesia ___?
A) Is a base B) Is hydrophobic C) Is a salt D) Is an acid E) Has the same pH as stomach acid |
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12) A molecule of glucose has the molecular formula C 6H12O6. Therefore it has __
atoms.
A) 3 B) 12 C) 6 D) 24 E) None of the above 13) Which of the followi ng provides some energy storage for animals?
A) Glucose B) Glycogen C) Cellulose D) Starch E) Ribose 14) Tr iglycerides are:
A) Polymers of amino acids B) Always composed of carbon rings C) Lacking carboxyl groups (COOH) D) Nonpolar and hydrophobic E) Made from glycerol and nucleic acids
15) Which of the following is NOT an organic molecule? A) Protein B) Nucleic acid C) Monosaccharide
D) Carbon dioxide
E) Lipid 16) Which of the following is NOT one of the four most common elements found in
living organisms? A) Hydrogen B) Carbon C) Oxygen D) Sulfur E) Nitrogen 17) What type of chemical reaction resu lts in the breakdown of organic polymers
into thei r respective subunits?
A) Condensation B) Hydrolysis C) Oxidation D) Ionization E) Dehydration
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18) All of the following are components of modern cell theory EXCEPT:
A) All living orga nisms are made up of one or more cells
B) The smallest living organisms are single cells C) All cells arise from preexisting cells
D) Bacterial cells are eukaryotic E) Cells are the functi onal units of all organisms
19) Which of the following organelles would only be found within a cell that was
both euka ryotic and autotrophic?
A) Mitochondria B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Golgi apparatus E) Chloroplast 20) Which statement is NOT true about bacteria?
A) Their cell wall is composed of t he same material as plant cell walls
B) Some can move because they have flagella C) Some can photosynthesize D) They are all prokaryotes E) Their cell wall contains peptidoglycan 21) Which of the followi ng statements about the plasma membrane is/are true?
A) It is a solid layer of proteins that protects the c ontents of the cell
B) The plasma membrane of the bacte rium has none of the same components
as the plasma me mbrane of a eukaryotic cell
C) It is a rigid and unmoving layer of phospholipids and proteins
D) It allows selected molecules to pass into and out of the cell E) C and D are correct 22) If a living plant were moved from a freshwater aquarium to a saltwater
aquarium, which of the following would occur?
A) Nothing – the plant would do equally well in either aquarium
B) The plant’s cells would lose water C) The plant’s cells would lose ions D) The plant’s cells would take up water E) The plant would gain turgor pressure 23) Which phrase does NOT describe one of the functions of pr oteins of the
plasma/cell membrane? A) Forming a channel through the membrane B) Initiating the replication of genetic material C) Binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane D) Acting as a receptor for substances outside the cell E) Maintaining Na
+/K+ balance in cell
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24) Which of the followi ng is true about ribosomes?
A) They contain RNA and proteins
B) They synthesize proteins
C) They are formed on the cytoskeleton D) They are found only in the nucleus E) A and B 25) The cells that line our respiratory tract, and covering one-celled paramecia both have t hese hair-like projections..
A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Microfilaments D) Centrioles E) Pili 26) Which form of energy is NOT corre ctly associated with an example?
A) Ki netic energy: fat molecules
B) Kinetic energy: mo vement of molecules
C) Chemical energy: glucose D) Potential energy: water behind a dam E) Potential energy: ATP 27) If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule
gaining that electron, the electron donor is said to be
A) Reduced B) Oxidized
C) Transformed
D) Activated E) Inhibited 28) Lactose is a disaccharide of glucose and galactose, and its digestion requires
the actions of t he enzyme lactase to break la ctose into monosaccharides.
If lactose is eaten as part of the diet but is not digested by lactase, this sugar
is then metabolized by bacteria in the intestine, leading to the symptoms of
lactose intolerance. Lactose in tolerance, therefore, results from a(n):
A) Lack of hydrolysis of lactose
B) Lack of dehydration synthesis of lactose
C) Low blood lactose level
D) Inability of the body to produce lactose E) Lack of glucose in the diet 29) Which molecule attaches to pyruvate after glycolysis and before Krebs cycle? A) Lactate B) Acetyl-CoA C) Citric acid D) NADH E) Oxygen |
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30) What is the significance of the conv ersion of pyruvate to lactate during
fermentation?
A) Pyruvate becomes available to enter the mitochondrial matrix
B) The citric acid/Krebs cycle is initiated C) NAD+ is regenerated for use in glycolysis D) ATP is produced E) The energy in pyruvate is used up 31) The first process in breaking down glucose is A) Krebs cycle B) Fermentation C) Chemiosmosis D) Glycolysis E) Preparatory Step 32) Which of the following molecules c an be modified to enter the citric
acid/Krebs cycle? A) Pyruvate B) Amino Acids C) Fatty Acids D) None of the above E) All of the above 33) Because one strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter cell,
the replication process is called A) Proofreading
B) Polymerizing
C) Semiconservative D) Redundant E) Duplication 34) In a DNA molecule, base pairing occurs between:
A) Adenine and thymine B) Adenine and guanine C) Guanine and uracil D) Thymine and cytosine
E) Adenine and uracil 35) During which phase of the eukaryot ic cell cycle does DNA and chromosome
replication occur? A) The S phase of interphase
B) The G 1 phase of interphase
C) The mitotic phase
D) Cytokinesis
E) The G2 phase of interphase
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36) When a cell divides via mitosis:
A) Each daughter cell receives a nearly perfect copy of the parent cell's
genetic information B) Each daughter cell receives exactly half the genetic information in the parent cell C) Each daughter cell receives the same amount of genetic information that
wa s in the parent cell, but it has been significantly altered
D) The genetic information is random ly parceled out to the daughter cells
E) Each daughter cell contains unique genetic information 37) Meiotic cell division occurs in the ____, and results in the production of ____ A) Body cells; daughter cells B) Body cells; parent cells C) Germ-line; gametes D) Testes and ovar ies; diploid cells
E) Somatic cells; haploid cells 38) In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the upright sides
of the ladder are: A) Nitrogenous bases linked together. B) Deoxyribose linked to phosphate. C) Deoxyribose linked to sulfate. D) Nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate. E) Hydrogen bonds between bases. 39) A “mini-gene” has the base sequence TACC CGTGCACG. Which of the following
sequences represent s a single base substitution?
A) TACCCGTGCACG
B) TACCCGAGCACG
C) TACCCGGCACG
D) TACCCGTGTCACG
E) TACCGTGCTACG 40) All of the following statements about genotypes and phenotypes are true
EXCEPT: A) Individuals with the same phenot ype might have different genotypes.
B) Matings between individuals wit h dominant phenotypes cannot produce
offspring with recessive phenotypes. C) Matings between individuals with recessive phenotypes usually do not
produce offspri ng with dominant phenotypes.
D) Individuals with the same genotype might have different phenotypes E) None of the abov e statements are true
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 29 | 29
41) Which of the following is NOT true about mutations?
A) Damage to DNA can result after exposure to some environmental factors
B) Mutations can often be repaired by enzymes C) Variations in DNA and mutations are important for ev olution to occur
D) All mutations are harmful for the organism E) Ultraviolet light can cause mutations 42) Choose the correct pathway of information flow in the cell. A) RNA → DNA → protein
B) DNA → RNA → protein
C) ER → DNA → RNA → protein
D) ER → DNA → Golgi → protein
E) Ribosomal RNA → DNA → protein
43) Which of the classes of RNA molecules is part of the proce ss of transcription?
A) Ribosomal RNA B) Transfer RNA C) Messenger RNA D) Primary RNA E) Secondary RNA 44) Which of the classes of RNA molecu les is/are part of the process of
translation? A) Ribosomal RNA B) Transfer RNA C) Messenger RNA
D) A and C
E) A, B and C 45) All of the following are direct ly involved in translation EXCEPT:
A) Ribosomes B) tRNA C) Amino acids D) DNA E) mRNA 46) Darwin realized that most species produce many more offspring than is
necessary to maintain a const ant population yet the size of the population
normally doesn’t change much. These “extra” individuals that are born:
A) Mi grate to another location
B) Die before they can reproduce C) Evolve to become new species D) Mutate and are able to adapt to new environments
E) Mate with other species
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 30 | 30
47) A broad definition of a fossil is:
A) Any preserved trace or remnant of an organism from the past, usually at
least 10,000 years old B) The preserved pieces of hard parts of an organism, such as shell or bone
C) The preserved bones of vertebrates D) A piece of an organism that has turned into a rock E) The process of preservation of intact animal bodies 48) The human appendix is an example of a(n):
A) Analogous structure
B) Homologous structure C) Vestigial structure D) Adaptation E) Mutation 49) Of all the possible amino acids, all living organisms make use of only the same 20 amino acids. This supports the idea that:
A) Only a limited number of DNA mutations are possible
B) Bacteria, animals, and plants developed independently
C) Each species uses a unique set of amino acids D) Plants and animals have a completely different ancestry E) All living things are derived from a common ancestor 50) Which is NOT an ex ample of evolution?
A) Development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. B) Flightless birds on islands without predators.
C) This year's flu is different from last year's flu.
D) A dog learns how to open the c abinet where its food is kept
E) Most commercial pesticides are effective for 2-3 years.
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https://www.mc3.edu/admissions/applying-to-mccc/testing-and-assessment/assets/biology-placement-test.pdf | 31 | 31
KEY for Review 3
1. B
2. B 3. E 4. E
5. A
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. B
14. D
15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. E 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. B
24. E
25. A 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. B
30. C
31. D 32. E 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. B
39. B
40. B 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. E 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C
49. E
50. D
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Subsets and Splits